[KRX]

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Originally Posted by GoseiWonder

Does it also explain why Mr. Riddle doesn't just subject all the Muggles as their dark emperor right away?

I don't think the books explain it outright, but, based on information provided by the text, I believe that Voldemort didn't immediately go after Muggles because the magical world would immediately try to liberate them. Muggles don't really pose much of a threat against wizards, and the wizards have plenty of ways to incapacitate Muggle aggressors without harming them. Because of this, the magical world was an obstacle that needed to be dealt with before others.

But this is speculation on my part. Text-based speculation, but speculation all the same.

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Or reveal magic to the world at a young age in such a way that Hogwarts can't possibly stop it resulting in him being renounded as some magical wunderkind that gets showered with constant admiration and power?

He was a child in the 1930s. I'm not entirely sure how he could do that.

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Or why Muggles can mix sodium and chlorine to make salt but not Doberman tears, toad kidneys and milkweed to make an elixer that reverse any bone fracture?

That I don't know. I presume it has something to do with Muggles not having magical energy.

But you have to at least admire the care and effort that J.K. Rowling put into the language of her book, especially in the incantations for spells.

Oh, and to stay on topic: